[Aug-2024] Updated PECB ISO-9001-Lead-Auditor Dumps - PDF & Online Engine [Q35-Q54]

[Aug-2024] Updated PECB ISO-9001-Lead-Auditor Dumps – PDF & Online Engine

ISO-9001-Lead-Auditor.pdf - Questions Answers PDF Sample Questions Reliable

NEW QUESTION # 35
Match the process descriptions below to the process names:

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
Match the process descriptions below to the process names:
The process by which the accuracy of test equipment is checked against a known standard. = Calibration The process by which a product or service is visually examined to determine conformity to requirements. = Evaluation The process by which data is examined in detail to reach a specific answer or answers. = Analysis The process by which a parameter of a product or service is examined to determine a specific value. = Measurement According to the ISO 9000:2015 - Quality management systems - Fundamentals and vocabulary, the definitions of the process names are as follows:
Calibration: operation that, under specified conditions, in a first step, establishes a relation between the quantity values with measurement uncertainties provided by measurement standards and corresponding indications with associated measurement uncertainties and, in a second step, uses this information to establish a relation for obtaining a measurement result from an indication.
Evaluation: determination of the suitability, adequacy or effectiveness of an object to achieve established objectives.
Analysis: detailed examination of the elements or structure of something.
Measurement: process to experimentally obtain one or more quantity values that can reasonably be attributed to a quantity.
Therefore, the process descriptions can be matched to the process names based on these definitions.
References:
ISO 9000:2015 - Quality management systems - Fundamentals and vocabulary

NEW QUESTION # 36
Whistlekleen is a national dry cleaning and laundry company with 50 shops. You are conducting a surveillance audit of the Head Office and are sampling customer complaints. You find that 80% of complaints originate from five shops in the same region. Most of these complaints relate to damage to customer laundry. The Quality Manager tells you that these are the oldest shops in the company. The cleaning equipment needs replacing but the company cannot afford it at the moment. You learn that the shop managers were told to dismiss most of the claims on the basis of the poor quality of the laundered materials.
On raising the matter with senior management, you are told that there are plans to replace the equipment in these shops over the next five years.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
The quality system failed to control the laundry services provided for customers in five shops.
The equipment used was not capable of consistently producing the required service.

NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following two documents does an auditor need to prepare and complete prior to the on-site audit?

• A. Procedures
• B. Checklist / Prompts
• C. Risk Matrices
• D. Findings
• E. Audit Plan
• F. Audit Report

Answer: B,E

Explanation:
According to ISO 19011:2018, clause 6.3, the audit plan is a document that provides the basis for agreement regarding the conduct of the audit. The audit plan should include the information listed in my previous response, such as the audit objectives, scope, criteria, schedule, team, methods, report, etc. The audit plan should be prepared and completed prior to the on-site audit, and should be communicated to the audit team and the auditee1.
According to ISO 19011:2018, clause 6.4.3, the checklist / prompts are documents that list the questions or topics that need to be covered during an audit. The checklist / prompts can help the auditor to collect and verify information relevant to the audit criteria, and to ensure the consistency and completeness of the audit.
The checklist / prompts should be prepared and completed prior to the on-site audit, and should be based on the audit plan and the audit scope and objectives1.
Therefore, the two documents that an auditor needs to prepare and complete prior to the on-site audit are B and D, as they are essential for planning and conducting the audit. The other options are not correct, as they are either prepared or completed after the on-site audit, or not required by the standard:
*A. Audit Report: The audit report is a document that provides a complete, accurate, concise, and clear record of the audit. The audit report should include the information listed in my previous response, such as the audit objectives, scope, criteria, findings, conclusions, etc. The audit report should be prepared and completed after the on-site audit, and should be distributed to the audit client and the auditee1.
*C. Procedures: Procedures are documents that specify the way activities are to be performed. Procedures may be part of the audit criteria, if they are part of the organization's management system, or part of the audit programme, if they are part of the certification body's or registrar's requirements. Procedures are not prepared or completed by the auditor prior to the on-site audit, but rather reviewed or followed by the auditor during the audit1.
*E. Risk Matrices: Risk matrices are tools that help to assess and prioritize the risks and opportunities associated with the audit programme or the audit. Risk matrices may be part of the audit programme management, if they are used to determine and evaluate the audit programme risks and opportunities, or part of the audit preparation, if they are used to determine and evaluate the audit risks and opportunities. Risk matrices are not prepared or completed by the auditor prior to the on-site audit, but rather used or updated by the auditor during the audit programme management or the audit preparation1.
*F. Findings: Findings are the results of the evaluation of the collected audit evidence against the audit criteria.
Findings can indicate either conformity or nonconformity, as well as positive aspects or opportunities for improvement. Findings are not prepared or completed by the auditor prior to the on-site audit, but rather generated and recorded by the auditor during the audit activities1.
References: ISO 19011:2018(en), Guidelines for auditing management systems

NEW QUESTION # 38
An audit team leader arrives at a printing company to carry out a Stage 2 audit for a certification body. At a meeting with the Quality Manager, she is told that they have won their biggest contract from a computer manufacturer to print and compile computer documentation packages. The Quality Manager wants the ISO
9001 certificate to cover the new contract.
During the audit, a team member found that some print jobs had been rejected by several clients over some months due to spelling errors in the print run. The Print Manager blames the new employees they had to take on because of a big contract.
The auditor finds that the responsibility for checking spelling errors is placed on the printer that sets up the print run.
In line with the policy of the certification body, the audit team raise improvement opportunities in the audit report. Which three of the following options would represent acceptable opportunities for improvement in the report?

• A. Operational planning activities may benefit from a clearer risk-based approach.
• B. The recruitment process to include spelling tests to filter out unsuitable candidates.
• C. An intensive training plan that involves all production personnel.
• D. More process time needs to be allocated to the new employees.
• E. A plan to determine why the errors occur and to prevent them.
• F. A business consultant can be recommended for advice on improving operations.
• G. The responsibility for checking printing needs to be independent of the operators.
• H. The organisation needs to delay its certification to gain more experience of the QMS.

Answer: A,E,G

Explanation:
According to the ISO 9001 Auditing Practices Group Guidance on Improvement Opportunities1, an improvement opportunity is a suggestion made by the auditor for the auditee to consider that, if implemented, may enhance the performance of the QMS. Improvement opportunities are not mandatory, but they should be based on objective evidence and aligned with the audit criteria and objectives. Improvement opportunities should also be realistic, feasible, and beneficial for the auditee. In this case, the evidence statements that represent acceptable improvement opportunities in the report are A, C, and E, because they address the potential causes and effects of the spelling errors in the print run, and propose possible actions that may improve the quality of the products and services, and the effectiveness of the QMS. These options are consistent with the requirements and principles of ISO 9001, such as clause 6.1 on actions to address risks and opportunities, clause 8.1 on operational planning and control, clause 8.5.1 on control of production and service provision, and clause 10.2 on nonconformity and corrective action. The other options are not appropriate improvement opportunities, because they are either irrelevant, unrealistic, or unhelpful for the auditee. For example, option B may contradict the audit objective and scope, option D may imply a lack of auditor competence or impartiality, option F may not address the root cause of the problem, option G may not be applicable or effective, and option H may not be feasible or justified. References: ISO 9001 Auditing Practices Group Guidance on Improvement Opportunities, ISO 9001:2015, ISO 9001 Auditing Practices Group Guidance on Audit Evidence

NEW QUESTION # 39
In the context of a third-party certification audit, match the roles with the following responsibilities:

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
In the context of a third-party certification audit, match the roles with the following responsibilities:
Responsibilities:
Conduct the audit to the assigned area.= Auditors
Assist the auditors in identifying personnel to participate in the audit.= Guide Assign each team member's responsibility for the audit.= Audit team leader Respond to questions and provide evidence to the auditor.= Auditee According to ISO 19011:2018, clause 3, the definitions of the roles are as follows1:
Auditors: persons with the competence to conduct an audit
Guide: person appointed by the auditee to assist the audit team
Auditee: organization being audited
Audit team leader: member of an audit team appointed to manage the audit or an audit team Therefore, the roles can be matched to the responsibilities based on these definitions and the description of the audit process in clause 6 of the standard1.
References: ISO 19011:2018(en), Guidelines for auditing management systems

NEW QUESTION # 40
You work for an organisation, 'A', which provides packaged food to the public. You are asked to lead a team (you as the leader and two other auditors) to audit a supplier, 'B', which provides packaging materials to your organisation. It is 4 p.m. and the audit is close to an end; you are having an internal meeting with the team to decide what will be presented to the auditee during the Closing meeting.
The Closing meeting was scheduled
for 5 p.m.
You, as audit team leader, audited top management, the laboratory, and the storage of raw materials.
Auditor 1 audited the two manufacturing lines and dispatch areas.
You to Auditor 1: "What findings would you report?"
Auditor 1: "When reviewing the Dispatch records, I noticed that during the morning two different trucks (Number 011 and 025) delivered the same batch number of the product (Batch 33555). Truck 011 left the plant at 9.15 am and Truck 025 left the plant at
11.30 am. Procedure P-02 Rev.3 says
that trucks should carry a complete batch. The batch number, once on the truck, is captured using a QR device." You: "OK, what do you think?" Auditor 2: "I think that this is a nonconformity." You: "OK. How would you describe the evidence on which the nonconformity will be based"?
Identify which one of the following statements best describes the identified nonconformity.

• A. Dispatch personnel do not always carry out its activities in conformance with Procedure P-02 rev 3.
• B. Dispatch personnel are not fully aware of the need to conform to written procedures.
• C. A product delivered to the client was not identified as required in P-02 Rev 3.
• D. The batch 33555 was delivered split in two different trucks (011 and 025).

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the definition in ISO 9000, a nonconformity is "non-fulfillment of a requirement". There are three parts to a well-documented nonconformity: the audit evidence to support auditor findings; a record of the requirement against which the nonconformity is detected; and the statement of nonconformity1. In this case, the audit evidence is the dispatch records that show the same batch number of the product being delivered by two different trucks at different times. The requirement is the procedure P-02 Rev.3 that says that trucks should carry a complete batch. The statement of nonconformity is that the batch 33555 was delivered split in two different trucks (011 and 025), which does not conform to the procedure. Therefore, option C best describes the identified nonconformity, as it includes all three parts of a well-documented nonconformity.
Option A is not correct, as it does not state the audit evidence or the requirement. Option B is not correct, as it does not specify the audit evidence or the statement of nonconformity. Option D is not correct, as it does not match the audit evidence or the requirement. References: 1: ISO 9001 Auditing Practices Group Guidance on Nonconformity - Documenting.

NEW QUESTION # 41
Who would be defined as a witness during a witness audit?
Choose two of the following options:

• A. An existing member of the audit team
• B. An assessor for the accreditation body
• C. Someone with a qualification from the certification body
• D. An auditor

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation: = According to the web search results from my internal tool, a witness audit is a technique used during an accreditation audit, where the accreditation body observes the performance and competence of the certification body auditors in conducting an audit12. A witness audit can also be used by a certification body to monitor and evaluate its own auditors3. During a witness audit, the following roles can be defined:
*An auditor: This is the person who is being witnessed by the accreditation body or the certification body. The auditor is responsible for conducting the audit according to the audit plan, criteria, and standards, and for providing audit evidence and findings123.
*An assessor for the accreditation body: This is the person who witnesses the auditor on behalf of the accreditation body. The assessor is responsible for evaluating the auditor's performance and competence, and for providing feedback and recommendations to the accreditation body123.
The other options are not defined as witnesses during a witness audit, according to the web search results from my internal tool. They are:
*Someone with a qualification from the certification body: This is not a specific role in a witness audit, as anyone who is involved in the audit process should have a qualification from the certification body. Moreover, having a qualification does not necessarily mean that the person is a witness or an auditor4.
*An existing member of the audit team: This is not a specific role in a witness audit, as the audit team consists of the auditors who are conducting the audit, not the ones who are witnessing it. The witness audit is a separate activity from the audit itself, and the witness should not interfere with the audit process or influence the audit outcome123.
Therefore, the correct answer is B and D.
References: 1: DQS Inc. | Witness Audits | Auditor Training 2: Have you ever been involved with a witness audit? - IFSQN 3: Certac - Witness Audit of Certification Bodies 4: ISO 19011:2018 - Guidelines for auditing management systems

NEW QUESTION # 42
You have been nominated audit team leader of a third-party audit. Which of the following could be the two most relevant objectives of this audit?

• A. Evaluate the satisfaction interested parties
• B. Evaluate the effectiveness of the management system
• C. Evaluate the benefits obtained since the implementation of the management system
• D. Evaluate the capability of the management system to establish and achieve objectives
• E. Identify opportunities for improvement
• F. Identify the need of resources

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Evaluate the effectiveness of the management system: This objective involves verifying that the quality management system meets the requirements of a specific standard, such as ISO 9001:2015, and that it achieves the intended results and outcomes. The audit team will collect and analyse audit evidence to determine the degree of conformity and performance of the quality management system23.
*Evaluate the capability of the management system to establish and achieve objectives: This objective involves verifying that the quality management system supports the strategic direction and policies of the organization, and that it addresses the needs and expectations of the interested parties. The audit team will assess the suitability, adequacy, and alignment of the quality management system objectives, and the effectiveness of the planning and implementation processes to achieve them23.
The other options are not the most relevant objectives of a third-party audit, according to the web search results from my internal tool. They may be related to other aspects or types of audits, but they are not the focus of a third-party audit.
Therefore, the correct answer is B and D.
References: 1: Safeguarding Your Business: The Power of Third-Party Security Audits 2: ISO 19011:2018 - Guidelines for auditing management systems 3: Third Party Audit - QMSGurus.com

NEW QUESTION # 43
Below are four of the seven principles on which ISO 9000 series are based. Match a potential benefit to each of the quality management principles (QMP).

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
Quality management principles:
Customer focus = Increased revenue and market share
Engagement of people = Enhanced trust and collaboration throughout the organisation Improvement = Enhanced drive for innovation Evidence-based decision-making = Increased ability to demonstrate effectiveness of past actions According to the Quality management principles document published by ISO, each quality management principle has a statement, a rationale, key benefits, and actions you can take to apply it. Based on these descriptions, the potential benefits can be matched to the corresponding principles as follows:
Customer focus: The primary focus of quality management is to meet customer requirements and to strive to exceed customer expectations. The key benefits of this principle include increased customer value, customer satisfaction, customer loyalty, repeat business, reputation, customer base, revenue and market share.
Engagement of people: Competent, empowered and engaged people at all levels throughout the organization are essential to enhance its capability to create and deliver value. The key benefits of this principle include improved understanding of the organization's objectives and values, increased involvement in improvement activities, enhanced personal development, increased motivation and empowerment, enhanced trust and collaboration, and increased recognition and rewards.
Improvement: Successful organizations have an ongoing focus on improvement. The key benefits of this principle include improved organizational capabilities, alignment of improvement activities at all levels, increased ability to anticipate and react to opportunities and threats, enhanced drive for innovation, and increased levels of satisfaction.
Evidence-based decision-making: Decisions based on the analysis and evaluation of data and information are more likely to produce desired results. The key benefits of this principle include improved decision-making processes, increased ability to demonstrate the effectiveness of past decisions, increased ability to review, challenge and change opinions and decisions, and increased ability to improve performance.

NEW QUESTION # 44
Which two of the following auditors would not participate in a first-party audit?

• A. An auditor from an interested party
• B. An auditor trained in the IRCA scheme
• C. An auditor employed by an external consultancy organisation
• D. An auditor trained in-house
• E. An auditor from a customer
• F. An auditor certified by IRCA

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
A first-party audit is an internal audit conducted by auditors who are employed by the organization being audited but who have no vested interest in the audit results of the area being audited1. The purpose of a first-party audit is to assess the conformity of the organization's quality management system to the requirements of ISO 9001 and to identify opportunities for improvement2. Therefore, the two auditors who would not participate in a first-party audit are:
*A. An auditor employed by an external consultancy organization: This auditor is not employed by the organization being audited, and therefore does not qualify as a first-party auditor. This auditor may be hired to conduct a second-party audit (if the external consultancy organization is a customer or supplier of the organization being audited) or a third-party audit (if the external consultancy organization is a certification body or registrar).
*F. An auditor from a customer: This auditor is not employed by the organization being audited, and therefore does not qualify as a first-party auditor. This auditor may be hired to conduct a second-party audit, as a customer is an interested party that has specific requirements for the organization being audited.
The other options are not correct, as they could participate in a first-party audit, as long as they are employed by the organization being audited and have no vested interest in the audit results of the area being audited:
*B. An auditor from an interested party: This auditor could be a first-party auditor, as long as the interested party is within the organization being audited. For example, an auditor from the finance department could audit the production department, as long as they are not involved in the production process or affected by its outcomes.
*C. An auditor trained in-house: This auditor could be a first-party auditor, as long as they are employed by the organization being audited and have no vested interest in the audit results of the area being audited. The source of the auditor's training is not relevant for determining the type of audit, as long as the auditor is competent and qualified to perform the audit.
*D. An auditor trained in the IRCA scheme: This auditor could be a first-party auditor, as long as they are employed by the organization being audited and have no vested interest in the audit results of the area being audited. The IRCA scheme is a professional certification scheme for auditors of management systems, which provides recognition of the auditor's competence and credibility3. However, being trained in the IRCA scheme does not determine the type of audit, as long as the auditor is competent and qualified to perform the audit.
*E. An auditor certified by IRCA: This auditor could be a first-party auditor, as long as they are employed by the organization being audited and have no vested interest in the audit results of the area being audited. Being certified by IRCA means that the auditor has met the requirements of the IRCA scheme and has demonstrated their competence and credibility as an auditor of management systems3. However, being certified by IRCA does not determine the type of audit, as long as the auditor is competent and qualified to perform the audit.
References: First Party Audits: The 5 Steps to Success - Sync Resource Inc, ISO 9001 Auditing Practices Group, IRCA - International Register of Certificated Auditors

NEW QUESTION # 45
You work as an external quality consultant for an organisation, 'A', which provides packaged food to the public. You are asked to lead a team (you as the leader and two other auditors) to audit a supplier, 'B', to ISO
9001 which provides packaging materials to your organisation. It is 4 pm and the audit is close to an end; you are having an internal meeting with the team to decide what will be presented to the auditee during the Closing meeting. The Closing meeting was scheduled at 5 pm.
You, as Audit Team Leader, audited top management. You explain to the audit team that you identified two nonconformities:
a. There is no documented information on Top Management Reviews, as required in clause 9.3 of ISO
9001:2015.
b. There is no evidence of Top Management Commitment as required in clause 5.1 of ISO 9001:2015. (e.g., not ensuring the availability of resources to operate the QMS, not ensuring the establishment of objectives, no promotion of improvement, no promotion of the process approach).
All agreed to present these two nonconformities. They went to meet the Top Management of 'B' and noticed that the General Manager and three other managers (Production, Human Resources, and Sales) were present in the meeting room.
Considering the seriousness of the two nonconformities to Top Management, as audit team leader, from the following select the best option:

• A. Ask the General Manager to have a private conversation in which you present the nonconformities only to him because of their sensitive nature.
• B. Present the nonconformities to the whole group and analyse with them how to overcome this situation.
• C. Present the nonconformities to the whole group and inform that you will recommend your company to remove them from the approved suppliers list.
• D. Present the nonconformities to the managers, inform them that the report will be sent within 10 days, close the meeting and leave the site.

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the guidance on conducting the audit closing meeting1, the audit team leader should provide a summary of the audit findings and conclusions, invite discussions, and agree on timelines for any corrective actions. The audit team leader should also be respectful, constructive, and objective when presenting the nonconformities, and avoid any personal or emotional comments. The audit team leader should also consider the impact of the disruptive event (such as the Covid-19 pandemic) on the auditee's context, interested parties, and risks2, and acknowledge any good practices or improvements observed during the audit. Therefore, option D is the best option, as it follows the best practices for the closing meeting and allows the auditee to understand the nonconformities and their implications, and to participate in the analysis and resolution of the issues. Option A is not correct, as it is not respectful, constructive, or objective, and it does not invite any discussion or feedback from the auditee. It also assumes that the audit team leader has the authority to recommend the removal of the supplier from the approved list, which may not be the case. Option B is not correct, as it does not provide enough information or explanation to the auditee, and it does not allow any discussion or feedback from the auditee. It also does not follow the best practices for the closing meeting, such as providing a summary of the audit, acknowledging any good practices, and agreeing on timelines for corrective actions. Option C is not correct, as it does not involve the other managers who are responsible for the functions or processes that were audited, and who may have valuable input or information to share. It also does not follow the best practices for the closing meeting, such as providing a summary of the audit, inviting discussions, and agreeing on timelines for corrective actions. References: 1: Conducting the Audit Closing Meeting: Sharing the Results2: Auditing ISO 9001:2015 in the Context of a Disruptive Event.

NEW QUESTION # 46
Which one of the following options best describes the purpose of a Stage 1 third-party audit?

• A. To determine the auditees understanding of ISO 9001.
• B. To learn about the organisation's procurement processes.
• C. To get to know the organisation's customers.
• D. To introduce the audit team to the client.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The purpose of a Stage 1 third-party audit is to determine an organization's readiness for their Stage 2 Certification Audit. During the Stage 1, the auditor will review the organization's management system documented information, evaluate the site-specific conditions, and have discussions with personnel. The objective is to assess the alignment of the organization's design with ISO 9001 requirements and to identify any areas of concern that could be classified as a nonconformance during the Stage 2 Audit. The auditor will also use the Stage 1 Audit to complete Stage 2 Audit planning, including a review of the allocation of resources and details for the next phase of the audit. Therefore, the option that best describes the purpose of a Stage 1 third-party audit is A, to determine the auditees understanding of ISO 9001. The other options are not correct, as they are not the main focus of a Stage 1 audit:
*B. To get to know the organization's customers: This is not the purpose of a Stage 1 audit, as the auditor is not interested in the specific details of the organization's customers, but rather in the organization's ability to meet customer and applicable statutory and regulatory requirements.
*C. To learn about the organization's procurement processes: This is not the purpose of a Stage 1 audit, as the auditor is not interested in the specific details of the organization's procurement processes, but rather in the organization's ability to control externally provided processes, products and services.
*D. To introduce the audit team to the client: This is not the purpose of a Stage 1 audit, as the auditor is not there to make introductions, but rather to conduct a preliminary examination of the organization's compliance with ISO 9001 standards.
References: What is the difference between Stage 1 and Stage 2 Audits? - ISO Update, The ISO 9001 Audit Process Explained | ISO Explained, What is an ISO Stage 2 Audit? - RiskOptics - Reciprocity

NEW QUESTION # 47
Select the term which best describes the quality management system process of modifying a non-conforming product to bring it within acceptance criteria.

• A. Concession
• B. Correction
• C. Preventive action
• D. Corrective action

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the ISO 9000:2015 - Quality management systems - Fundamentals and vocabulary, correction is defined as "action to eliminate a detected nonconformity". A nonconformity is defined as "non-fulfilment of a requirement". Therefore, the process of modifying a non-conforming product to bring it within acceptance criteria is a correction, as it eliminates the non-fulfilment of the product specification. The other options are not correct, as they have different definitions and purposes:
*Concession: permission to release or use a nonconforming product, service or process
*Corrective action: action to eliminate the cause of a nonconformity and to prevent recurrence
*Preventive action: action to eliminate the cause of a potential nonconformity or other undesirable potential situation References: ISO 9000:2015 - Quality management systems - Fundamentals and vocabulary, ISO 9001 nonconforming product: How to understand dispositions - Advisera

NEW QUESTION # 48
Select six of the activities that are specifically required by ISO 17021-1 as part third-party (Certification Body) surveillance audit processes.

• A. Complete a full document review of the quality management system.
• B. Audit use of certification marks on marketing materials.
• C. Review the status of previously raised findings and audit effectiveness of any outstanding findings.
• D. Confirm effectiveness of internal audit and management review.
• E. Failing to meet financial responsibilities.
• F. Verify legal compliance.
• G. Conduct a minimum number of annual surveillance audits during the certification period.
• H. Handling of customer complaints since last visit.
• I. Review changes to the QMS since last visit.
• J. Review the calibration status of the instrumentation.

Answer: B,C,D,F,H,I

Explanation:
The activities that are specifically required by ISO 17021-1 as part of third-party (Certification Body) surveillance audit processes are:
*Option A: Audit use of certification marks on marketing materials. This option is correct because ISO
17021-1:2015 clause 9.6.2.2 requires the certification body to audit the client's use of marks and/or any other reference to certification, as applicable, to ensure conformity with the certification requirements.
*Option B: Review changes to the QMS since last visit. This option is correct because ISO 17021-1:2015 clause 9.6.2.2 requires the certification body to review any changes affecting the client's quality management system and its ability to continue to fulfil the requirements of the standard used for certification.
*Option C: Confirm effectiveness of internal audit and management review. This option is correct because ISO
17021-1:2015 clause 9.6.2.2 requires the certification body to confirm the continuing effectiveness of the client's quality management system, including the effectiveness of the internal audit and management review processes.
*Option F: Review the status of previously raised findings and audit effectiveness of any outstanding findings.
This option is correct because ISO 17021-1:2015 clause 9.6.2.2 requires the certification body to review the status of findings and any corrective actions taken by the client in response to previous audits, and to verify the effectiveness of the implemented corrective actions.
*Option H: Verify legal compliance. This option is correct because ISO 17021-1:2015 clause 9.6.2.2 requires the certification body to verify the client's compliance with applicable statutory and regulatory requirements related to the scope of certification.
*Option I: Handling of customer complaints since last visit. This option is correct because ISO 17021-1:2015 clause 9.6.2.2 requires the certification body to review the client's handling of customer complaints related to the certified activities since the last audit.
The following options are not correct:
*Option D: Complete a full document review of the quality management system. This option is not correct because ISO 17021-1:2015 clause 9.6.2.2 does not require the certification body to complete a full document review of the quality management system during surveillance audits. A full document review is only required during the initial certification audit or when there are significant changes to the quality management system or the certification requirements.
*Option E: Failing to meet financial responsibilities. This option is not correct because ISO 17021-1:2015 clause 9.6.2.2 does not require the certification body to audit the client's financial responsibilities during surveillance audits. The certification body may have contractual arrangements with the client regarding the payment of fees, but this is not part of the surveillance audit process.
*Option G: Review the calibration status of the instrumentation. This option is not correct because ISO
17021-1:2015 clause 9.6.2.2 does not require the certification body to review the calibration status of the instrumentation during surveillance audits. The certification body may audit the client's monitoring and measuring resources as part of the quality management system requirements, but this is not a specific activity required by ISO 17021-1.
*Option J: Conduct a minimum number of annual surveillance audits during the certification period. This option is not correct because ISO 17021-1:2015 clause 9.6.2.2 does not require the certification body to conduct a minimum number of annual surveillance audits during the certification period. The certification body may determine the frequency and duration of surveillance audits based on the risk and performance of the client, but this is not a specific activity required by ISO 17021-1.
References:
*ISO 17021-1:2015 Conformity assessment - Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of management systems - Part 1: Requirements
*ISO 9001 Lead Auditor Course Material, Module 7: Audit Follow-up and Surveillance, Slide 8: Surveillance Audit
*ISO 9001 Lead Auditor Training Course - IRCA Certified, Section 7.2: Audit Follow-up and Surveillance
*Lead Auditor Exam Preparation Guide (EPG) Template - PECB, Section 3.2: Exam Content Outline, Subsection 3.2.1: Section 1 - Audit Fundamentals, Subsection 3.2.2: Section 2 - Audit Principles, Subsection
3.2.3: Section 3 - Audit Process, Subsection 3.2.4: Section 4 - Audit Competencies

NEW QUESTION # 49
You are carrying out an audit to ISO 9001 at an organisation which offers regulatory consultancy services to manufacturers of cosmetics.
You are interviewing the Technical Director (TD), who manages a team of regulatory experts responsible for providing regulatory services to customers.
You: "How do you ensure your regulatory team's competence concerning regulatory requirements is maintained?" TD: "The two Regulatory Experts we employ full-time have years of experience of working in the cosmetics industry." You: "How is their regulatory competence maintained?" TD: "They are dedicated individuals with lots of contacts in the sector." You: "How does the business enable them to maintain their understanding of current regulatory requirements?" TD: "We leave that up to them."

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
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NEW QUESTION # 50
During a second-party audit, the auditor examines the records that are available for the external provider, ABC Forgings, to whom manufacturing has recently been outsourced.
There are standard external provider checklists for three competitors for the contract and there are inspection records from the trial manufacturing batches produced by ABC Forgings. There is no documented evidence of the criteria used to confirm the appointment of ABC Forgings, and no contract or terms and conditions.
Ongoing monitoring indicates that external provider performance is satisfactory, but no documented information has been retained.
Select two options for the evidence which demonstrates a nonconformity with clause 8.4 of ISO 9001.

• A. The external provider asked for the contract details to be verbal only.
• B. There were no receipt inspection records of the incoming materials.
• C. The auditee trusted the external provider because of a long-standing relationship with them.
• D. The auditee required the outsourced products on an urgent basis before the completion of the paperwork.
• E. The auditee did not retain documentation on the selection and evaluation of the external provider.
• F. There was no documentation which provided evidence of any monitoring of the external provider.

Answer: E,F

Explanation:
According to clause 8.4 of ISO 9001:2015, the organization should ensure that externally provided processes, products, and services conform to the specified requirements. To do so, the organization should:
*Establish the criteria for the selection, evaluation, and re-evaluation of external providers, based on their ability to provide processes, products, and services in accordance with the requirements. The criteria should be documented and applied consistently.
*Evaluate the potential external providers before selecting them, using the established criteria. The evaluation methods may include questionnaires, audits, references, samples, etc. The results of the evaluation should be documented and reviewed.
*Select the external providers that have demonstrated their competence and conformity to the requirements.
The selection should be based on the evaluation results and the organization's needs. The selection should be documented and approved.
*Communicate the requirements for the processes, products, and services to be provided by the external provider, including the verification and validation activities, the acceptance criteria, the documentation requirements, the changes control, etc. The communication methods may include purchase orders, contracts, agreements, etc. The communication should be clear, complete, and timely.
*Monitor the performance and conformity of the external provider, using the established criteria and methods.
The monitoring methods may include inspections, tests, audits, feedback, complaints, etc. The monitoring results should be documented and analyzed.
In this case, the evidence statements that demonstrate a nonconformity with clause 8.4 are A and C, because they show that the organization did not retain documented information of the selection and evaluation of the external provider, and the monitoring of the external provider's performance. These are requirements of the standard and essential for ensuring the quality of the externally provided processes, products, and services.
The other options are not directly related to clause 8.4, although they may indicate other nonconformities or weaknesses in the organization's QMS. For example, option B may relate to clause 7.1.3 on contingency planning, option D may relate to clause 8.2.3 on review of requirements, option E may relate to clause 8.6 on release of products and services, and option F may relate to clause 5.1.1 on leadership and commitment.
References: ISO 9001:2015, [ISO 9001 Auditing Practices Group Guidance on Scope], Mastering the Scope of ISO 9001 Quality Management Systems

NEW QUESTION # 51
XYZ Corporation is an organisation that employs 100 people. As the audit team leader, you conduct a certification audit at Stage 1. When reviewing the quality management system (QMS), you find that the objectives have been defined by an external consultant using those of a competitor, but nothing is documented.
The Quality Manager complains that this has created a lot of resistance to the QMS, and the Chief Executive is asking questions about how much it will cost.
Which two options describe the circumstances in which you could raise a nonconformity against clause 6.2 of ISO 9001?

• A. The consultant has not interpreted ISO 9001 correctly.
• B. Quality objectives were not established in alignment with the organisation's quality policy.
• C. Quality objectives are not maintained as documented information.
• D. The organisation cannot afford to undertake quality objectives all at once.
• E. Establishing quality objectives did not include top management.
• F. Quality objectives are not being implemented by the organisations' personnel.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
According to ISO 9001:2015, clause 6.2.1, the organization is required to establish quality objectives at relevant functions, levels, and processes for the quality management system (QMS). The quality objectives must be consistent with the quality policy, measurable, monitored, communicated, and updated as appropriate.
The organization is also required to maintain documented information on the quality objectives, as per clause
7.5.1.
Therefore, in the scenario given, the quality objectives defined by the external consultant are not in alignment with the organization's quality policy, as they are based on those of a competitor, rather than the organization's own purpose, strategic direction, and customer requirements. This creates a mismatch between the organization's vision and goals, and the quality objectives that are supposed to guide and measure the QMS performance. Moreover, the quality objectives are not maintained as documented information, which makes it difficult to communicate, monitor, and update them, as well as to demonstrate evidence of their implementation and achievement.
Hence, the circumstances in which a nonconformity against clause 6.2 of ISO 9001 could be raised are B and C, as they indicate a failure to comply with the requirements of clause 6.2.1. The other options are either irrelevant or not directly related to clause 6.2, as they do not pertain to the establishment and documentation of quality objectives.
References:
ISO 9001:2015(en), Quality management systems - Requirements, clause 6.2.1 and 7.5.1 ISO 19011:2018(en), Guidelines for auditing management systems, clause 6.4.4 and 6.7.2 ISO 9001 Lead Auditor Training Course | IRCA Certified | BSI, section "Learning objectives" ISO 9001 Lead Auditor Course Material | 3FOLD Education Centre, module 5 and 6

NEW QUESTION # 52
According to ISO 19011, what two activities take place during the conduct of a audit follow-up?

• A. Determine feasibility of the audit
• B. Assign roles and responsibilities of observers
• C. Verify legal compliance
• D. Verify the effectiveness of the implemented corrective actions
• E. Plan the next audit
• F. Verify corrections taken to fix the reported non-conformities

Answer: D,F

Explanation:
According to ISO 19011:2018, clause 6.7, the audit follow-up is the process of verifying the completion and effectiveness of corrective actions taken by the auditee as a result of an audit. The audit follow-up can include two main activities:
Verifying the effectiveness of the implemented corrective actions: this means checking whether the actions taken by the auditee have addressed the root causes of the nonconformities and prevented their recurrence or occurrence in other areas. The verification can be done by reviewing documents, records, data, or other evidence provided by the auditee, or by conducting a follow-up audit on site or remotely.
Verifying corrections taken to fix the reported non-conformities: this means checking whether the auditee has corrected the nonconformities identified during the audit and eliminated their immediate effects. The verification can be done by reviewing documents, records, data, or other evidence provided by the auditee, or by conducting a follow-up audit on site or remotely.
The audit follow-up can be conducted as a separate audit or as part of a subsequent audit, depending on the audit programme, the audit objectives, the audit criteria, the audit scope, the audit risks, and the audit findings.
The audit follow-up should be planned and conducted in accordance with the same principles and processes as the initial audit, and the results should be documented and reported accordingly. References:
ISO 19011:2018(en), Guidelines for auditing management systems, clause 6.7 ISO 19011 Management Systems Audit Checklist | Process Street, task 6.7.1 and 6.7.2 Conducting the Audit Follow-Up: When to Verify - The Auditor, section "Conducting the audit follow-up"

NEW QUESTION # 53
Select the term that best describes the purpose of retaining documented information in a quality management system to ISO 9001.

• A. To provide confidence in the effectiveness of the quality management system.
• B. To safeguard the integrity of the quality management system.
• C. To facilitate auditing for proof of conformity to the standard.
• D. To support the operation of the processes of the quality management system.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Documented information is a means by which an organization demonstrates compliance. It communicates what we do and how we do things, it communicates what happened and what results were achieved. It is, essentially, a tool for communication. ISO 9001:2015 allows an organization flexibility in the way it chooses to document its quality management system (QMS). This enables each individual organization to determine the correct amount of documented information needed in order to demonstrate the effective planning, operation and control of its processes and the implementation and continual improvement of the effectiveness of its QMS. The standard states that the organization shall maintain documented information to the extent necessary to support the operation of processes and retain documented information to the extent necessary to have confidence that the processes are being carried out as planned. Therefore, the purpose of retaining documented information is to support the operation of the processes of the QMS, not to facilitate auditing, provide confidence or safeguard integrity, which are secondary benefits of documented information.
References: Guidance on the requirements for Documented Information of ISO 9001:2015, ISO 9001:2015 documented information | CQI | IRCA, Documented Information Required by ISO 9001:2015 - 9000 Store

NEW QUESTION # 54
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